The Explanatory StopgapEric Lormand Forthcoming 2005 in Philosophical Review (i) typically when satisfactory explanations are available in other domains of science, what is explained is conceptually necessitated by what explains it, although (ii) the existence of conscious experience is not conceptually necessitated by any possible combination of premises about the nonconscious or the nonexperiential. This requirement of
conceptual (epistemological, a priori)
necessitation is, intentionally, demanding in the extreme. Claim (i) is usually argued for by giving
examples from science that seem to fulfill it.
More generally, it seems to be motivated by the idea that explanation
answers questions, and that a fully satisfying answer to a question
should not raise a new question in its place. For example, a fully satisfying answer to
the question 'what is necessary and sufficient for consciousness [or life,
water, rocks, and so on]?' should not in turn raise the question 'why is that necessary and sufficient for consciousness [life, water,
rocks]?' And, it must be admitted,
nothing closes off further questions quite like revealing them to presuppose
conceptual contradictions.
While I think there is much to be said against this stringent requirement
on fully satisfactory explanation--both by arguing against the examples adduced
in support of claim (i), and by arguing that questions may be rendered pointless
without resting on conceptual contradictions--my aim in this article is to argue
against (ii), and indeed to show in detail, step by conceptually necessary step,
how to deduce
phenomenal feels from purely nonphenomenal material.
1 The gapSince the appearance of Thomas Nagel's "What is it like to be a bat?" defenders of the explanatory gap have been getting bolder with each passing decade. Nagel claims in that article that there is a "gap between subjective and objective," but he does not wield his bat against the metaphysical doctrine that everything mental is physical. Rather, he argues that the gap is in our current understanding of this doctrine: "we do not at present have any conception of how it might be true" (1974, 176, my emphasis). Joseph Levine, the originator of the phrase 'explanatory gap,' concurs that the gap is epistemological rather than metaphysical, but strengthens the epistemological upshot: "there is a significant problem about our ever coming to know that statements like ['pain is the firing of C‑fibers'] are true" (1983, 359, my emphasis). Most recently, David Chalmers argues from the explanatory gap not only to epistemological conclusions but also to a wide range of squarely metaphysical positions, including property dualism, epiphenomenalism, and even panpsychism (1996; for a more modest panpsychism, see Nagel 1979). My concern in this article is not with these family squabbles about the ramifications of the gap, but with its alleged source. Fortunately, gap‑theorists speak in unison here; all emphasize that the explanatorily recalcitrant aspect of conscious experiences is that there is something it is like to have them. Nagel explains the troublesome sense of 'conscious' as follows:
Levine similarly insists that "what is at issue is the ability to explain qualitative character itself; why it is like what it is like to see red or feel pain" (1993, 128), and maintains:
Chalmers characterizes the problem most fundamentally in the same 'something it is like' way, then adds more jargon‑laden characterizations:
Why is it so hard, according to Chalmers? For exactly the reasons specified by Nagel and Levine:
Helpfully, Chalmers hones the challenge as follows:
Okay, then: I choose
both "truth" and "dare." I will try to give defenders of the
explanatory gap exactly what they say they want.
2
The stopgap
Clearly, to avoid charges of missing the point, my attempt to stop up the
explanatory gap must come face‑to‑face with the
concept of there being something it is like for a creature to have a
feature. The feature might be a nonmental
kind-property (being a bat, being human, being the creature itself, ...), or a
nonmental bodily or environmental property (flying, going to the store, being
bitten, ...), or a mental property (seeing a bat, imagining flying, thinking
about going to the store, feeling bitten, ...).
In the sense intended by defenders of the gap, I think, the last of these
is conceptually fundamental. As we
might say, there isn't anything it is like
simply
for a creature to be a bat, or human, or itself. To say the least, we ordinarily think it
possible for a bat or a human being to spend its entire life in a deep coma,
with only autonomic brain activity and no consciousness of any sort, while still
being a bat or a human being.
Similarly, there isn't anything it is like for a creature simply to fly, to go to the store, or to
be bitten--where these are construed as purely bodily and environmental
features. A deeply comatose bat can
be flung through the air, and its teeth can be sunk into a deeply comatose human
being who is being carried to the store.
When there is something it is like to have a kind property or a bodily or
environmental property, this is explained
by there being something it is like to have a mental property--indeed, something
it is like simply to have the mental
property. Perhaps there is something
it is like simply to see a bat, to imagine flying, to think about going to the
store, or to feel bitten--at least when these are active and introspectible
mental features. Creatures without
such mental properties--perhaps the deeply comatose--need not apply.
Suppose then that a creature c has a mental property M.[1] How can we get at the concept of
conscious experience that defenders of the explanatory gap seek to isolate? I will begin (but not end) by
investigating why the following (somewhat) ordinary
expression
strikes the right conceptual chord in so many people: Two overarching requirements
To my ear, (1) can be heard either as entailing that
M is actually and currently possessed--perhaps with the emphasis 'there is
something it IS (now) like to have M'--or
as making a claim about possible cases of having
M--perhaps with the emphasis 'there is something it is like (simply) TO have M.'
Since my aim is to take the explanatory‑gap challenge as seriously as
possible, I want to ferret out any and all content that may be suggested by the
pet phrase of gap‑defenders.
So I will construe (1) as making a claim both about the actual (present) case and more broadly about possible
cases. The broader claim is not
merely that there is a correlation
between there being something it is like, on the one hand, and the possession of
M, on the other. It is that there is something it is like simply to have M--that there must be something it is like in order to have M. Consider again the hesitation or
looseness we sense about 'it is like something
to be a bat' or 'it is like something
to go to the store'--as opposed to 'it is like something to feel pain'--as
described in the first paragraph of this section. This is a sign that a necessity claim is
suggested by (1). The hesitation or
looseness might be explained as follows: we deny 'in order to be a bat, there
must be something it is like,' and 'in order to go to the store, there must be
something it is like,' but perhaps we affirm 'in order to feel pain, there must
be something it is like.' This
necessitation requirement is never far from the surface, since we can favor it
merely by emphasizing the word 'to' in (1), as above. On a natural reading this is elliptical
for 'in order to.' On this reading,
for (1) to be true: 'There is', 'it', and 'to have M'
Let us turn to the component phrases of (1).
First we have to note that (1) is clearly elliptically equivalent to (2): 'Is like' and 'something' Let us turn finally to the peculiar phrase 'is like something for c.' The 'something' plays an especially odd role. It clearly functions as a variable, a placeholder, but over what does it generalize? Not primarily "things" designated by noun phrases, but features specified by predicative phrases. If asked what it is like to wrestle with a riddle, the adjectives 'interesting' or 'fatiguing' are better answers than the nouns 'interest' or 'fatigue.' This use of 'like' in (1)-(5) mirrors a more widespread use described as follows in the 1971 Oxford English Dictionary (O.E.D.):
If we were to try to
express (5) in something more like logical notation than grammatical English, we
would have to write 'is like some F'--using a predicate variable 'F'--
rather than 'is like some x'--using a
term variable 'x.' But it is only in rare cases that we can
complete 'is like ...' with a predicate rather than a term, without losing
grammaticality. We can say a mental
state 'is like interest and fatigue' but not that it 'is like interesting and
fatiguing,' except when 'like' is, like, a mere interjection, as it clearly is
not in (1)-(5). However, we can say, with only a slight awkwardness,
'it is like something--interesting and fatiguing' or 'interesting and fatiguing
are some things it is like.' Let us
record as follows the very odd pair of grammatical properties displayed by 'is
like' and 'something' in (1)-(5): I believe that (a) and (c) are genuine semantic features that must not be lost in interpreting (5), but that (b) is a relatively unimportant accident of modern English syntax. Although with the exception of 'is like mad' and 'is like new' we do not often say 'is like F'--not even 'is like sane' or 'is like old'--such phrases were once more common in English.[7] It is no surprise that they would be rendered obsolete, given the dominant competing use of 'is like' for 'is similar to,' which demands completion by terms (for instance, nouns) rather than predicates (for instance, adjectives). Yet while 'is like [adjective]' has lost its head‑on competition with 'is like [noun],' it lives on in the simple variant 'is [adjective]-like.' The O.E.D. describes modern Scotch usage in ways that seem tantalizingly relevant to the present quest:
Modern (19th‑
and 20th‑century) examples given include "greedy-like," "grim-like
smile," "square‑like room," "herbaceous-like shrub," "sublime-like beauty,"
"gluey-like material," and so on. This usage is not only a survival of
earlier Scotch usage,[8]
but of a much more extended usage in English: in fact, the ubiquitous use of the
suffix '-ly' for adverbs derives from the Middle English suffixes '-lik' and
'-like,' as in modern English 'greedily' from Middle English 'gredilike.'[9] Modern English also has a small number of
survivors such as 'genteel-like' and 'humanlike.' Frequency and breadth of use aside, the
important point is that these constructions are all easy for the ordinary
speaker to understand. I believe
that the best way to make sense of grammatical features (a)-(c) is to interpret
(5) as (6):
Of course, 'appear' and 'appearance' can have a variety of meanings, and much of
the remaining task is to select the relevant one and stick with it without
equivocating. For example, I have not yet discussed
whether "having an appearance" in the sense relevant to (1)‑(7) must be a matter
of actually appearing or as a matter
of being disposed (in some sense) to appear.
Nor have I discussed what kind
of appearing is involved--for instance,
perceptual
appearance versus appearance in judgment,
and phenomenal appearance versus nonphenomenal appearance. Before addressing these issues, I want to
support the invocation of (7) with some supplementary grammatical
considerations. 'For' and 'c'
A semantic virtue of the "appearance" reading (7) is that it makes sense of the
conceptual role of 'for' in 'x is like
something for c.'
Out of the 31 major uses of the preposition 'for' listed in the O.E.D.,
there are only two that make much sense in this construction: "in the presence
or sight of" (For, prep., A.I.1.b,
F‑409) and "as regards, with regard or respect to, concerning" (For, prep., A.IX.26, F‑412).[12] There are good reasons for thinking "in
the presence or sight of" is especially relevant.
First, if 'for' meant only "with regard to," we should expect that it
could be followed by terms other than
those for creatures. A pain in my
leg is "with regard to" me, but it is
also "with regard to" my leg, my medicine cabinet (since it sends me
hobbling there), and so on
Nevertheless, the pain in my leg is like something only for me; it is like
something neither for my leg nor for my medicine cabinet.
This is explained on the "in the presence or sight of" reading of 'for':
the pain in my leg is like something in the sight of me, but not in the sight of
my leg or my medicine cabinet.[13] Second, I think we can only understand
the substantiveness (versus redundancy) of 'for'--the fact that it can call for
emphasis, as Nagel shows--on the "in the presence or sight of" reading.
Given
that c is the creature that has M, features of c's having M are trivially 'for' c in the "with regard to" sense--they are trivially "with regard or
respect to" c. Whatever
being like something is, if one knows that a mental state of c's has that feature, one would learn nothing further by being told
that this fact is 'for' c in the weak
sense that it is "with regard to" c. One
would
learn something very interesting, well worth stressing, if one were told that
this fact is 'for' c in the sense that
it is "in the presence or sight of" c. Only in that case, as Nagel would urge,
have we characterized c's point of view.
This protects (7) as an interpretation of (6) even if--somehow, contrary
to the O.E.D.'s suggestion--'is F‑like' in (6) does not itself mean "has the appearance of being F." We should still
interpret the 'for c' in (6) strongly,
as (6a):
Another virtue of the "appearance" reading (7) is that it explains why there is
no significant difference between 'is like' as used in (1)‑(5), and
corresponding uses of 'feels like' or 'seems like.'
People do not ordinarily distinguish between "what it is like to go on a safari"
and "what it feels like to go on a safari," or between "what it is like to be an
accountant" and "what it seems like to be an accountant."
Likewise, it is hard to find a difference in meaning among (1) and two
variants, as they would ordinarily be understood:
Let us now consider what sense of 'appear' in (7) best accounts for the relevant
sense of 'is F-like' in (6). I think this is a very demanding sense. Notice, first, that the 'for c' at the end of (6) is detachable in inference. Just as (2) entails (1), there is an
entailment from (6) to (6b):
Notice, second, that we can easily append to 'is ... like ... for
c' in (2)-(6) a restriction such
as 'but not for anyone else.' This
is one potentially relevant difference between the use of 'is [adjective]‑like'
for conscious experience and the use of it elsewhere--for humanlike creatures,
grim‑like smiles, cars that are like new, and so on. In the latter cases the most natural
qualifiers restrict the ease of perception to a group (a car may be like new for consumers but not for mechanics, a
smile may be grim‑like for children but not for adults, and so on), while for an
experience the most natural qualifier restricts the ease of perception to an
individual (the bearer of the experience).
This presents a difficulty of interpretation.
By comparison, what would it mean to say 'the smile is grim-like for c but not for anyone else'?
It can mean that only c can be fooled, because of some defect
in c.
Or less plausibly it can also mean that c uses some abnormally keen
perceptual faculty that no one else in similar circumstances would share. But when it does mean either of these
things, it is incompatible with the
detached claim 'the smile is grim‑like.'
As described in the previous paragraph, the simplified claim requires a kind of
objectivity and reference to normal perception.
What would it mean, then, to say 'the smile is grim‑like for c but not for anyone else' in a sense compatible with the objective 'the smile
is grim‑like'? Here, I think, it
would be meant that the smile actually
perceptually appears only to c as grim
(or actually appeared so, with the
perceptual memory intact in c),
although if others could perceive (the
relevant properties of) the smile, they too would perceive it as grim.
Likewise, since 'c's having M is like something' is compatible with 'c's having M is like
something for c but not for anyone
else,' this favors the stronger reading that c's having M actually perceptually appears or
(memorably) appeared to c as being
some way. The present‑tense
"appears" requirement is favored over the more relaxed "appears or appeared"
requirement by an element in (1)‑(7) that is absent in the grim‑like-smile case,
namely, the overarching requirements (α) and (β), that c now have M and that the appearance be necessary in order for c to have M. The persistence of a
perceptual memory of having had M,
after c no longer has M, could not normally be necessary in order for c to have M. The requirement is more stringent for
experience than for other cases, since a creature's being humanlike is not
required for the creature's existence, a smile's being grim-like is not required
for the smile's existence, a car's being like new is not required for the car's
existence, and so on. The upshot of
all this is that (1)‑(7) are equivalent to (8):
Finally, the 'c' in 'is like ... for c'
(and 'appears ... to c') seems to
express an additional requirement, which can be reached by emphasizing that it
means "c as a whole" rather than "some
small part of c." This sort of requirement is widespread in
contemporary discussions, following a suggestion of Gareth Evans that "conscious
perceptual experience ... serves as the input to a thinking, concept-applying, and reasoning
system," so that "we can say that the person, rather than just some part of
his brain, receives and possesses the information" (1982, 158). Evans' requirement is designed to apply
to persons, but perhaps some similar
requirement could extend to creatures
more generally. Much more needs to
be said about the proper construal of 'as a whole' (see section 5 below), but
for now let us record it by construing (9) as equivalent to: Results
(10) is my stopgap analysis of the very concept of there
being something it is (now) like for a creature c (simply) to have a feature M. It gives expression to a number of
requirements or "specs" for phenomenality:
The central task ahead is to investigate whether specs (A)‑(H) can be explained
satisfactorily by a scientific model.
A satisfactory explanation of (A)‑(H) would explain the truth of (10), which in
turn entails (9), which entails (8) ... and so on counting down to (1) itself:
3
Scrap
Leaving aside uses of 'like' related to the verb 'to like,' the O.E.D.
distinguishes two families of uses: as an adjective modifying terms--where 'x
is like y' means 'x is similar to y' or 'x resembles y,' and as an adverb modifying predicates--where 'x has F like y' means 'x has F in the manner of y' or 'x
has F as y has F' or 'x has F as if x =
y.' Judging solely from what precedes 'like'
in (1)‑(5)--'c's having M is ...' (or 'it is ...')--either of
these uses could be in play. 'Is
like ...' could be an adjective modifying 'c's
having
M,' so that 'c's having M is like ...'
would come to 'c's having M is similar to ....' Or 'like ...' could be an adverb
modifying the being of c's having M, so that 'c's having M is like ...' would come to 'c's
having M exists like ...' and
therefore to 'c's having M exists in the manner of ....'
Neither avenue is particularly promising, however. I will discuss the adjectival "is similar
to" proposal; the results would apply straightforwardly to the adverbial "in the
manner of" proposal.
If instead of moving from (5) to (6) we were to try reading 'is like' literally,
as 'is similar to,' we would get (5a), an implausibly weak construal of (5):
Of course, for similarity claims relating two
specific kinds of entities, there are pragmatic implicatures about relevant respects of similarity.
But there is no such pragmatic substance under generalization, when one
of the "kinds" is "something". By
contrast, the interesting thing about 'is ... like' in (1)-(6) is that it maintains substance despite the
generality of 'something,' even in detached claims such as (1) and (6b). This is explained quite simply on the
"perceptually appears" interpretation I have given of (5):
While this detour through the detached (5b) is telling, it is perhaps more
important for an interpretation to succeed with undetached claims such as (5a).
Even though a "similarity" reading is trivial for (5b), perhaps it is not
for (5a). Perhaps some "hidden"
mental states of mine--latent memories, tacit knowledge, Freudian hatreds,
Heideggerian anxieties, subliminal perceptions--fail to be conscious experiences
because they are not similar to something
for me. Presumably to ask
whether they are similar to something "for me" is to ask whether they are
similar to something to me, that is,
whether I believe they are similar to something.
Well, since I believe everything is similar to everything else, as soon
as I so much as guess that these
states exist--say, by reading Freud, Heidegger, or Chomsky uncritically--I
believe they are similar to something.
This does not raise them to the status of conscious experiences, however.[19] (5) should not be interpreted literally,
as (5a). By contrast, my
interpretation (8) can explain why there is nothing it is like for c to have these "hidden" states, even when c believes in them via
testimony or wild guessing. It is
not even intuitively tempting to think
they are perceptible by c.
It is unsurprising that 'is like' in (1)‑(5) should be taken nonliterally, given
the grammatical peculiarities described in the previous section:
Further difficulties arise from the widespread philosophical stipulation
mentioned in the previous section:
We cannot even rescue an "is similar to" reading of (5) by building in a
restriction to similarity in phenomenal respects (or in qualia), yielding (5f):
If an "is similar to" reading has any remaining plausibility, I think this is
because we so easily construe similarity specifically as
perceptual
similarity--a construal that is even easier for 'resembles'--as in the following
potential interpretations of (5):
The strength of 'for c' (described in the previous section)
yields another way to protect (7)‑(10) as an interpretation of (5), even
if--contrary to my argument from grammatical peculiarities (a)‑(c)--(5) is
equivalent not to (6) but to the literal:
4
A trap
As I mentioned at the end of section 2, in order to stop up the explanatory gap
(10) must involve an unambiguous sense of 'appear,' one that
is both relevant to conscious experience and explainable scientifically. According to defenders of the explanatory
gap, ambiguity is often the crucial deficiency in attempts to explain conscious
experience. To be on the safe side,
then, let us consider how these objections run. Chalmers says that Daniel Dennett (1991) "claims (in effect) that what needs to be explained is how things seem, and that his theory explains how things seem" (1996, 370). Chalmers objects as follows:
I am not concerned
here with whether Chalmers' interpretation and criticism of Dennett is correct.
I wish to distance my approach from Dennett's, and to explain how I do not slip
between two senses of 'appear' (or of 'seem'), whether "phenomenal" or
"psychological" or otherwise.
Although the results I have enshrined in specs (A)‑(H) depend heavily on the use
of 'appear,' and although this is similar to Dennett's term "seem," the
similarities end very quickly.
First, Dennett seeks to explain how things
seem--the things comprising the typically nonmental
subject matter
of experience--while I wish to explain how
experience
seems (or appears). I am promoting a
kind of inner "theater" model that Dennett has argued most forcefully against
(see my 1994 for a defense of theater models from Dennett's attacks). Second, as is already emphasized in (D),
I do not give pride of place to mere (dispositions to) judgments, in the way
that Dennett does. So I definitely
do not trade on Chalmers' "psychological" sense of 'seem' (or 'appear'). I do not even assume that this is a bonafide sense of 'appear'--I may
judge that the universe is finite, but it does not in any sense I care about appear finite, and at the moment I am disposed to judge of any ripe banana that
it is yellow, but at the moment none appears yellow to me. My sense of 'appear' is far more
demanding than the psychological sense of 'seem' that Chalmers finds in Dennett. Given my reliance on the notion of perceptual appearings, which have subject matter or representational content, my view has some affinities with a view that Chalmers calls "representationalism":
One difference between my position and ordinary representationalism is that my crucial focus is not on the (perceptual) representing of nonmental "yellow things" but on the (perceptual) representing of representings (that is, of what I will argue are experiences) of yellow things. The detailed sense in which my position is representationalist will only become explicit in section 7. For now, what matters is the challenge of avoiding equivocation. Chalmers' overall criticism of representationalism echoes his criticism of Dennett:
Again, my concern is not with the
merit of this diagnosis of previous representationalist theories. I agree that (A)‑(H) must be explained
with 'appear' in precisely the same
sense that makes (7)‑(10) justified construals of (1)‑(6), to avoid charges of
missing the point:
What then is the sense of 'appear'
that makes (7)‑(10) plausible as a reading of (6)? My answer is: whatever sense
generally makes 'x appears F' a plausible reading of 'x
is F‑like.' What sense is that? It is certainly not Chalmers' alleged psychological sense of 'seem' (or
'appear'). We do not understand 'the
creature is humanlike,' 'the smile is grim‑like,' and 'the car is like new' in
any literal way we might understand 'there is a disposition to judge that the
creature is human' or '... that the smile is grim,' or '... that the car is
new.' A devious or wildly guessing
rumor mongerer (or a used‑car dealer on television) can bring about the truth of
the latter statements without bringing about the truth of the former statements.
The relevant sense of 'appear' is, as Chalmers would expect, much more
"inflationary." It is demanding in ways expressed in
specs (D)‑(F), requiring actual, present‑tensed perception. Call this the "perceptual" sense of
'appear' (or 'seem').[23]
Although the perceptual sense is much more stringent than Chalmers' alleged
psychological sense of 'seem,' it does not
involve his alleged phenomenal sense of 'seem.' The concept of there being something it is like is not presupposed (individually)
by the concepts of actuality, present‑tensedness,
or perception. I assume this is
obvious for the concepts of a state's being actual and being present‑tensed, but
perhaps I need to argue that a state can (as a matter of conceptual possibility)
be perceptual without being phenomenal. The intuitive conceivability of
perceptual states it is like nothing to have is supported by actual cases of
wholly subliminal perception and "blindsight," and of "early" states in
processing in the retina, lateral geniculate nucleus, and (perhaps) primary
visual cortex. I do not need to
establish here (though in fact I believe) that in some cases there is nothing it is like to have such states, but I do claim that we
conceive of them as perceptual without
knowing or caring whether there is--and so we speak of subliminal perception, blindsight, primary visual
cortex, and so on.[24] (A critic might emphasize 'blindsight' rather than 'blindsight,' hoping to deflate the idea that
this is perceptual. But in fact I am thrilled to emphasize
'blind.' Blindsight is not sight in which one is blind--that would be a
conceptual contradiction--but sight to
which one is blind--this contrasts nicely with phenomenal seeing, if I am right
that phenomenal seeing requires perceptually‑apparent‑to‑one seeing.
I discuss blindsight--and the possibility of
inner blindsight--more fully in the next section.)
The broadly perceptual (rather than any strictly phenomenal) sense of 'appear'
is what is relevant to the 'is F‑like' cases: humanlike creatures,
grim‑like smiles, like‑new cars, and so on. For a used car to be like new, it is
enough for it perceptually to appear
new, whether it does so because of wholly subliminal perception or full‑fledged
conscious experience. As any
psychologically savvy used‑car dealer must know, the more subliminal perception involved in the appearance of newness the
better (and, indeed, truer) the claim that the car is "like
new." Cars could be like new even
for beings as much like us as possible without having phenomenal
consciousness--though I do not say they would be philosopher's "zombies" exactly like us in nonphenomenal ways.
The same holds for humanlike creatures, grim‑like smiles, and so on.
At no point along the way to (10) does the stopgap analysis of (1)
introduce phenomenal concepts, circularly, and at no point does the power of the
arguments depend on implicit assumptions of phenomenality.
"But surely there must be a double use of 'appear'
somewhere, if it is to forge a link between raw material and raw feels!" Absolutely.
I do not use 'appear,' fallaciously, with a double sense (meaning, intension, concept, ...)--here with one sense, there
with another. But I do use 'appear,'
nonfallaciously, with a double object--here
one class of things does the appearing, there another class of things does the same kind of appearing.
First, I appeal to scientific explanations of what it is for arbitrary objects and events (actually,
present‑tensedly, and perceptually) to appear. This appeal certainly does not all by itself explain why there is
something it is like to have certain mental states. Such appearings can and do exist without
there being anything they are like.
But second, holding unequivocally to this scientifically explainable sense of
'appear,' I apply it not to arbitrary objects and events but (in ways to be
described in section 6)
to appearings themselves. There is only one sense of 'appear' in my
account, the perceptual sense.
If the sense in which an experience 'appears' to one is to be exactly the same
as the nonphenomenal sense in which a car 'appears' to one, without room for a
conceptual residue, the two relations had better be
commonsensically
practically indistinguishable except
for the difference in relata. If we
could tell the two relations apart introspectively, or through any other means
easily available in commonsense thinking, and if this difference were of any
practical concern to us (aside from the difference in relata), then it would be
likely that we would have different
concepts for them, different senses of the word 'appear.' To insure that we do not cheat by assuming phenomenality or equivocating in
any other fashion, then, let us for emphasis include a conceptual requirement
(I) in addition to specs (A)‑(H): |